Ben Spitz (43/100 improv meals)
1 year
The answer is ≥50%! Actually, the exact probability is very close to ln(2) ≈ 69%. Here's why:
For a fixed k ∈ {101,...,200}, the number of cycles of length k formed from the elements of {1,...,200} is
C(200,k)*(k-1)!
where C(a,b) denotes a binomial coefficient.
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